Fed funds = Equilibrium (Neutral) Real Short Rate + Actual Inflation + 0.5(Actual Inflation – Target Inflation) + 0.5(Actual GDP – Potential GDP)
I am reading pimco paul, and he argues that the fed is slavishly (ok my word) following the taylor rule.
What do you think?
eg:
(he uses employment instead of gdp, which is explained in his little paper
http://www.pimco.com/LeftNav/Feature...tober+2006.htm
)
I am reading pimco paul, and he argues that the fed is slavishly (ok my word) following the taylor rule.
What do you think?
eg:
What does it imply right now? The Core PCE deflator is presently running about 2˝% versus the Fed’s 2% target, so that would imply the Fed should be holding the Fed funds rate 75 basis points above neutral – the 50-basis point upside miss, plus a penalty of one-half that amount. In turn, the unemployment rate is presently about 4˝% versus the Fed’s presumed 5% full employment unemployment rate; that miss would imply tacking another 75 basis points on top of the neutral Fed funds rate.
http://www.pimco.com/LeftNav/Feature...tober+2006.htm
)
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