i'm having trouble understanding the following passage from an interview with jim paulsen in this week's barrons:
In the next 25 years we are going to have slow but steady improvement in our trade deficit, and that is going to be the dividend payback for the long period of investment we made in these other countries. In the past several years, let's say, our domestic demand has been growing 5% each year while we lost about 1% abroad. So our real GDP is growing at 4%. Let's say next year the trade deficit improves by a percent and our domestic demand is still growing at 5%; well, then GDP grows at 6%. We can go from 4% to 6% without any change in domestic spending trends. You can imagine what that does to wage demands and interest rates.
i don't follow these numbers. can someone enlighten me? where does he get "we lost about 1% abroad"? the 2005 trade deficit was 5.8% of u.s. gdp. but this is a nominal figure. he specifies real gdp. also wouldn't it require going to a 1% surplus for to get to 6% gdp by his reasoning? and isn't that a huge and impossibly fast turnaround? and even if we somehow turn this into a -1 becoming a +1, isn't that a +2 change? what am i missing? i would appreciate it if someone could clarify this passage for me.
In the next 25 years we are going to have slow but steady improvement in our trade deficit, and that is going to be the dividend payback for the long period of investment we made in these other countries. In the past several years, let's say, our domestic demand has been growing 5% each year while we lost about 1% abroad. So our real GDP is growing at 4%. Let's say next year the trade deficit improves by a percent and our domestic demand is still growing at 5%; well, then GDP grows at 6%. We can go from 4% to 6% without any change in domestic spending trends. You can imagine what that does to wage demands and interest rates.
i don't follow these numbers. can someone enlighten me? where does he get "we lost about 1% abroad"? the 2005 trade deficit was 5.8% of u.s. gdp. but this is a nominal figure. he specifies real gdp. also wouldn't it require going to a 1% surplus for to get to 6% gdp by his reasoning? and isn't that a huge and impossibly fast turnaround? and even if we somehow turn this into a -1 becoming a +1, isn't that a +2 change? what am i missing? i would appreciate it if someone could clarify this passage for me.
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