Re: POOM! (or soon to be POOM!!)
Thanks for the observation, bart. Just to check...
The term auction facility (TAF) allows banks to borrow from the Federal Reserve at an interest rate set by the auction, and for which they must put up collateral (formerly US government and agency securities, but now increasingly junky stuff). The funds are loaned for either 28 or 84 days, after which time the bank is supposed to pay back the loan plus interest, and receive its collateral back... except that these loans can now be rolled-over more or less indefinitely (right?). So, this is a means by which a bank can boost its reserve deposits based upon the notional (essentially ficticious) value of illiquid securities it owns. This is potentially inflationary if reserve deposits rise as a result, and banks lend to the full extent of those higher reserves. Well and good.
In a repurchase agreement, the borrower sells securities to a lender for cash, with the agreement to buy the securities back at a later date, for a higher price. The equivalence you cite seems fairly straight-forward. Either transaction has the form of a collateralized loan at interest.
However, the thing that is confusing me is that I was given to understand from Professor Hamilton's article that loans of this type actually were being sterilized by corresponding sales of treasuries. If Professor Hamilton wasn't talking about this type of loan from the Fed, then to what type of loan was he making reference?
On the other hand, if what Professor Hamilton says is actually so, then sterilization must not be based upon the total reserve deposits in the system -- otherwise we wouldn't be treated to plots of the monetary base going vertical. I suppose this could happen if the amount of treasuries sold by the Fed to sterilize its loans to banks was much smaller than the amount of treasuries bought to target interest rates, or if it was small compared to the change in lending behavior of the banks (hoarding reserves against potential losses). Alternatively, I suppose the Fed could make its decisions about how much to sterilize based upon something other than a 1:1 correspondence to the funds it loans to banks -- for instance, measures of growth and employment, or a stability criterion for the amount of credit loaned against the reserve deposits (rather than the amount of those deposits themselves). If the latter, then Hamilton is talking out the corner of his mouth, and what he really should say is that the Fed can sterilize, rather than the Fed is sterilizing.
Anyway, thanks for chiming in. You are on the list of iTulipers better qualified than I to address Adeptus's question. I just like writing.
Originally posted by bart
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The term auction facility (TAF) allows banks to borrow from the Federal Reserve at an interest rate set by the auction, and for which they must put up collateral (formerly US government and agency securities, but now increasingly junky stuff). The funds are loaned for either 28 or 84 days, after which time the bank is supposed to pay back the loan plus interest, and receive its collateral back... except that these loans can now be rolled-over more or less indefinitely (right?). So, this is a means by which a bank can boost its reserve deposits based upon the notional (essentially ficticious) value of illiquid securities it owns. This is potentially inflationary if reserve deposits rise as a result, and banks lend to the full extent of those higher reserves. Well and good.
In a repurchase agreement, the borrower sells securities to a lender for cash, with the agreement to buy the securities back at a later date, for a higher price. The equivalence you cite seems fairly straight-forward. Either transaction has the form of a collateralized loan at interest.
However, the thing that is confusing me is that I was given to understand from Professor Hamilton's article that loans of this type actually were being sterilized by corresponding sales of treasuries. If Professor Hamilton wasn't talking about this type of loan from the Fed, then to what type of loan was he making reference?
On the other hand, if what Professor Hamilton says is actually so, then sterilization must not be based upon the total reserve deposits in the system -- otherwise we wouldn't be treated to plots of the monetary base going vertical. I suppose this could happen if the amount of treasuries sold by the Fed to sterilize its loans to banks was much smaller than the amount of treasuries bought to target interest rates, or if it was small compared to the change in lending behavior of the banks (hoarding reserves against potential losses). Alternatively, I suppose the Fed could make its decisions about how much to sterilize based upon something other than a 1:1 correspondence to the funds it loans to banks -- for instance, measures of growth and employment, or a stability criterion for the amount of credit loaned against the reserve deposits (rather than the amount of those deposits themselves). If the latter, then Hamilton is talking out the corner of his mouth, and what he really should say is that the Fed can sterilize, rather than the Fed is sterilizing.
Anyway, thanks for chiming in. You are on the list of iTulipers better qualified than I to address Adeptus's question. I just like writing.
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