Re: Pilger on Greece
Of course! I don't think anyone is claiming that the debt is not problematic, when it comes to maintaining sovereignty! Quite the reverse. It is everything you say, with Kant's and Michael Hudson's additions as well.
But Kant's objection, if any, would have been that the democratic process in Greece had failed to represent the people, when it was issuing the debt in the first place. That the debt was odious, based on its initial acquisition within Greece, and that the government of Greece had failed to represent its citizens' interests against the initial private bondholders when it issued the debt.
Subsequent transactions between democratically elected governments would not in themselves have been something that Kant would object to. He was in FAVOR of structures like the European Union, and was trying to create a pathway to HELP them form, when he wrote the essay including his rules. But he was also entirely clear that the rules had a crucial prerequisite, and that was a government that was democratically elected to represent its people's best interests.
So if Kant had an objection, it would have been that Greece's democracy was insufficiently developed (not really representing the welfare of its people, but instead serving a ruling class of oligarchs) to be either issuing massive debts, or entering into long-term transfers of sovereignty, such as joining the EU. Clearly, the second must have a higher standard for representation than the first.
If an elected government were able to adequately represent the interests of the people of Greece, he would have no problem with it choosing to cede sovereignty to a larger, umbrella government, even for largely financial reasons.
The US started out as such a government, with states at very different levels of economic strength (Kant was in favor) and the EU is trying to follow the same path.
I could even concede that Kant would still object. But Kant's objection would never be to the path itself, in the abstract. He would instead object to the eligibility of certain states to begin the journey.
Call that splitting hairs, if you will. But the difference has consequences in both the justification of the existence of the European Union, and the viability of Greece remaining within it.
Originally posted by ProdigyofZen
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But Kant's objection, if any, would have been that the democratic process in Greece had failed to represent the people, when it was issuing the debt in the first place. That the debt was odious, based on its initial acquisition within Greece, and that the government of Greece had failed to represent its citizens' interests against the initial private bondholders when it issued the debt.
Subsequent transactions between democratically elected governments would not in themselves have been something that Kant would object to. He was in FAVOR of structures like the European Union, and was trying to create a pathway to HELP them form, when he wrote the essay including his rules. But he was also entirely clear that the rules had a crucial prerequisite, and that was a government that was democratically elected to represent its people's best interests.
So if Kant had an objection, it would have been that Greece's democracy was insufficiently developed (not really representing the welfare of its people, but instead serving a ruling class of oligarchs) to be either issuing massive debts, or entering into long-term transfers of sovereignty, such as joining the EU. Clearly, the second must have a higher standard for representation than the first.
If an elected government were able to adequately represent the interests of the people of Greece, he would have no problem with it choosing to cede sovereignty to a larger, umbrella government, even for largely financial reasons.
The US started out as such a government, with states at very different levels of economic strength (Kant was in favor) and the EU is trying to follow the same path.
I could even concede that Kant would still object. But Kant's objection would never be to the path itself, in the abstract. He would instead object to the eligibility of certain states to begin the journey.
Call that splitting hairs, if you will. But the difference has consequences in both the justification of the existence of the European Union, and the viability of Greece remaining within it.
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