Re: Some of the Wealthy Asking to Be Taxed
I don't automatically assume Buffett is right, hence my inquiry into your data source.
And it certainly appears your data source - the Heritage Foundation - has many inconsistencies in its method and also shows a very different picture than the over-representation you refer to.
The fact remains: the upper quintile is not over-represented in non-prior service accessions.
The upper 2 quintiles might be, but then again the middle class has historically been the source of military manpower post draft era.
Buffett wasn't referring to the upper 2 quintiles, he was specifically referring to the rich.
The rich, defined as some subset of the upper quintile, said quintile in turn defined as being between $88K and $100K income, have a 3.5% representation in the non-prior service accession data. This is 3.5% vs. 20% of incomes.
Perhaps there's a flaw in my line of logic, but I don't see how this disproves anything Buffett has said - unless you believe a disproportionate share of this 3.5% is from the 0.01% or 1% income thresholds.
And in this case, I again ask for data.
I'd also note that accessions which include prior service would definitely include high paid specialists like pilots, which surely you would agree are an anomalous income demographic in the military?
Various links including airforce.com, glassdoor.com, etc all show pilot pay to be from 65K to 141K - well within Jtabeb's notes on pilot pay. Presumably 65K applies to 2nd lieutenants just joined up, while the average is surely quite close to $100K and the upper quintile, even excluding combat bonuses.
The number of pilots is also significant. This report notes 28000 active duty pilots in 1999:
http://www.gao.gov/archive/1999/ns99102t.pdf
although of course 28000 isn't necessarily a significant factor compared to the overall size of the military.
You have the exact same data source I used.
You have the method I used.
You have the conclusions I drew, and why.
You're still welcome as before to take the provided data and a different method to show a potentially different conclusion.
If said conclusion is significantly different, then there would be a reason to continue to discussion. Since you have not undertaken this simple process, I don't see anything to discuss.
Why you have not done so, I do not speculate.
You're seeking to pick a point when all you have to do is perform the math yourself and see if it makes any difference.
It doesn't. You would realize this if you actually did the math.
Since the spending for entertainment is almost exactly the same ratio to income between both Joe Sixpack and 'Joe Thousand-aire', the numerical differences would be minimal. The only effect is to increase the numerator less than the denominator, but the effect would be similar on both tax to disposable income (whatever your definition) ratios.
But then you seem to think that somehow redefining disposable income would make a difference.
Originally posted by Ghent12
And it certainly appears your data source - the Heritage Foundation - has many inconsistencies in its method and also shows a very different picture than the over-representation you refer to.
The fact remains: the upper quintile is not over-represented in non-prior service accessions.
The upper 2 quintiles might be, but then again the middle class has historically been the source of military manpower post draft era.
Buffett wasn't referring to the upper 2 quintiles, he was specifically referring to the rich.
The rich, defined as some subset of the upper quintile, said quintile in turn defined as being between $88K and $100K income, have a 3.5% representation in the non-prior service accession data. This is 3.5% vs. 20% of incomes.
Perhaps there's a flaw in my line of logic, but I don't see how this disproves anything Buffett has said - unless you believe a disproportionate share of this 3.5% is from the 0.01% or 1% income thresholds.
And in this case, I again ask for data.
I'd also note that accessions which include prior service would definitely include high paid specialists like pilots, which surely you would agree are an anomalous income demographic in the military?
Various links including airforce.com, glassdoor.com, etc all show pilot pay to be from 65K to 141K - well within Jtabeb's notes on pilot pay. Presumably 65K applies to 2nd lieutenants just joined up, while the average is surely quite close to $100K and the upper quintile, even excluding combat bonuses.
The number of pilots is also significant. This report notes 28000 active duty pilots in 1999:
http://www.gao.gov/archive/1999/ns99102t.pdf
although of course 28000 isn't necessarily a significant factor compared to the overall size of the military.
Originally posted by DSpencer
You have the method I used.
You have the conclusions I drew, and why.
You're still welcome as before to take the provided data and a different method to show a potentially different conclusion.
If said conclusion is significantly different, then there would be a reason to continue to discussion. Since you have not undertaken this simple process, I don't see anything to discuss.
Why you have not done so, I do not speculate.
Originally posted by DSpencer
It doesn't. You would realize this if you actually did the math.
Since the spending for entertainment is almost exactly the same ratio to income between both Joe Sixpack and 'Joe Thousand-aire', the numerical differences would be minimal. The only effect is to increase the numerator less than the denominator, but the effect would be similar on both tax to disposable income (whatever your definition) ratios.
But then you seem to think that somehow redefining disposable income would make a difference.
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