The following question was posed in the Can the Fed stop QE? thread recently.
I've seen two descriptions of "fractional reserve banking".
-->One like yours: A bank has $1 billion in reserves, it can loan $9 billion of new money.
-->The other (Chris Martenson, for example), explains that the bank takes a percentage of reserves for each deposit and lends the remaining. The money grows because the money lent eventually finishes in another deposit in the same or a different bank and is lent again (minus reserve).
Which is the correct answer? Does it depend on the bank, i.e. the Central Banks (the Fed plus the 12 district banks, versus say Wachovia.
I would be very interested in the answer.
Thanks
I've seen two descriptions of "fractional reserve banking".
-->One like yours: A bank has $1 billion in reserves, it can loan $9 billion of new money.
-->The other (Chris Martenson, for example), explains that the bank takes a percentage of reserves for each deposit and lends the remaining. The money grows because the money lent eventually finishes in another deposit in the same or a different bank and is lent again (minus reserve).
Which is the correct answer? Does it depend on the bank, i.e. the Central Banks (the Fed plus the 12 district banks, versus say Wachovia.
I would be very interested in the answer.
Thanks
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