Re: 2008 Review in Pictures and 2009 Forecast - Eric Janszen
While of course anything is possible given the present uncertainty levels, I personally still do not see how the sudden start can happen. An 'animal forces' snap back, yes, but not a fundamental change, because several things aren't going to change in the next 2 quarters - or perhaps much much longer:
1) US economy continues its downward path
2) US continues to run significant (but likely smaller) currency account deficits
3) As a consequence to 1) and 2), the need for ROW CBs to sterilize incoming dollar flows drops
4) US federal fiscal deficit worsens considerably
The variables are as follows:
a) China/East Asia does worse than the US, stays the same, or does better
b) EU does worse than the US, stays the same, or does better
c) Oil producing nations do worse than the US, stay the same, or do better
(UK is going down no matter what)
Of the multiple possibilities outlined above, under which scenario does the US dollar stay strong due to relative economic status?
Note that while all nations consume something and produce something, the US outconsumes everyone by a significant margin:
http://www.worldwatch.org/node/1783
The US consumes 6x its relative population share vs. 4.5x for Europe vs. 0.65x for Asia vs. 0.34x for Middle East/North Africa.
If I use the Middle East/North Africa as a rough proxy for the oil producing nations, it is clear from a consumption and production standpoint that they don't matter - especially with oil prices low.
Clearly the 'burden' of consumption lies with the US and Europe.
What about the production side?
http://www.visualizingeconomics.com/...-of-world-gdp/
percent-world-gdp-1500.jpg
So US produces 22% of world GDP, but consumes 31.5%
Europe produces 21% of world GDP, but consumes 28.7%
Asia, just counting China Japan, produces 19%, but consumes 21.4% for the whole region. Likely overall production is in the low to mid 20s%.
No matter how you slice it, the US produces too little relative to consumption, Europe as well but less so, and Asia is the means by which US/EU overconsumption has occurred.
In the scenario above - clearly the risks are not with the Asian economies. Sure, lots of easy money being made via outsourcing and what not is going to disappear, but this production will find a way to meet internal demand needs because said internal demand is much less elastic and starting from a lower base.
From this viewpoint it is Europe and the US who are both at risk: 30% and 27% drops in order for consumption to match production.
But Europe's population share vs. consumption is lower: 4.5x vs. the US' 6x. Exclude the nuclear kill zone called the UK, and likely the overall numbers are even lower.
Why does this matter? Because population represents some minimum need: food, housing, etc. More population means less elasticity of demand. To me this says that consumption in Europe will hold up better than the US relatively speaking.
So how again is a sudden start to occur? Where will the excess production come from to subsidize the US and European overconsumption? How much will consumption fall in the US and Europe? esp. relative to production falls?
The Chicago economists and their media minions gloss over this, but the fact remains that China and India have survived on relatively nothing well within recent memory. They can do so again.
On the other hand, for the US and Europe, even a return to parity (i.e. production = consumption) means catastrophic falls in standards of living. Thus the US cannot even get by just with a stable production vs. consumption ratio, the US MUST have subsidies in order to continue its ways.
How can the US and Europe compel the rest of the world to continue to do so? The bargain in the past was consumption subsidy in return for income to build infrastructure.
Now that income is not forthcoming, why should the consumption subsidy continue? How, even, can the consumption subsidy continue?
Rome was able to survive by transporting wheat from Egypt to Italy, but it was military force which occupied Egypt and provided the slaves for labor.
The US has been using the fiat dollar and its savings to effect the same. The savings are largely gone, and the fiat dollar is wobbling mightly.
Can the US militarily force a continuation of consumption subsidies?
I think not.
So whatever happens in the next few months, don't forget the big picture.
Edit: Japan is an example where a nation has chosen to subsidize US overconsumption in return for military protection against Russia and China. But Japan is now losing more from its economic protectorate role than it saved by not having to build up a military of its own nor forge alliances with one or more of its large immediate neighbors.
Originally posted by jk
1) US economy continues its downward path
2) US continues to run significant (but likely smaller) currency account deficits
3) As a consequence to 1) and 2), the need for ROW CBs to sterilize incoming dollar flows drops
4) US federal fiscal deficit worsens considerably
The variables are as follows:
a) China/East Asia does worse than the US, stays the same, or does better
b) EU does worse than the US, stays the same, or does better
c) Oil producing nations do worse than the US, stay the same, or do better
(UK is going down no matter what)
Of the multiple possibilities outlined above, under which scenario does the US dollar stay strong due to relative economic status?
Note that while all nations consume something and produce something, the US outconsumes everyone by a significant margin:
http://www.worldwatch.org/node/1783
Table 1–1. Consumer Spending and Population, by Region, 2000 | ||
Region | Share of World Private Consumption Expenditures | Share of World Population |
( percent ) | ||
United States and Canada | 31.5 | 5.2 |
Western Europe | 28.7 | 6.4 |
East Asia and Pacific | 21.4 | 32.9 |
Latin America and the Caribbean | 6.7 | 8.5 |
Eastern Europe and Central Asia | 3.3 | 7.9 |
South Asia | 2.0 | 22.4 |
Australia and New Zealand | 1.5 | 0.4 |
Middle East and North Africa | 1.4 | 4.1 |
Sub-Saharan Africa | 1.2 | 10.9 |
If I use the Middle East/North Africa as a rough proxy for the oil producing nations, it is clear from a consumption and production standpoint that they don't matter - especially with oil prices low.
Clearly the 'burden' of consumption lies with the US and Europe.
What about the production side?
http://www.visualizingeconomics.com/...-of-world-gdp/
percent-world-gdp-1500.jpg
So US produces 22% of world GDP, but consumes 31.5%
Europe produces 21% of world GDP, but consumes 28.7%
Asia, just counting China Japan, produces 19%, but consumes 21.4% for the whole region. Likely overall production is in the low to mid 20s%.
No matter how you slice it, the US produces too little relative to consumption, Europe as well but less so, and Asia is the means by which US/EU overconsumption has occurred.
In the scenario above - clearly the risks are not with the Asian economies. Sure, lots of easy money being made via outsourcing and what not is going to disappear, but this production will find a way to meet internal demand needs because said internal demand is much less elastic and starting from a lower base.
From this viewpoint it is Europe and the US who are both at risk: 30% and 27% drops in order for consumption to match production.
But Europe's population share vs. consumption is lower: 4.5x vs. the US' 6x. Exclude the nuclear kill zone called the UK, and likely the overall numbers are even lower.
Why does this matter? Because population represents some minimum need: food, housing, etc. More population means less elasticity of demand. To me this says that consumption in Europe will hold up better than the US relatively speaking.
So how again is a sudden start to occur? Where will the excess production come from to subsidize the US and European overconsumption? How much will consumption fall in the US and Europe? esp. relative to production falls?
The Chicago economists and their media minions gloss over this, but the fact remains that China and India have survived on relatively nothing well within recent memory. They can do so again.
On the other hand, for the US and Europe, even a return to parity (i.e. production = consumption) means catastrophic falls in standards of living. Thus the US cannot even get by just with a stable production vs. consumption ratio, the US MUST have subsidies in order to continue its ways.
How can the US and Europe compel the rest of the world to continue to do so? The bargain in the past was consumption subsidy in return for income to build infrastructure.
Now that income is not forthcoming, why should the consumption subsidy continue? How, even, can the consumption subsidy continue?
Rome was able to survive by transporting wheat from Egypt to Italy, but it was military force which occupied Egypt and provided the slaves for labor.
The US has been using the fiat dollar and its savings to effect the same. The savings are largely gone, and the fiat dollar is wobbling mightly.
Can the US militarily force a continuation of consumption subsidies?
I think not.
So whatever happens in the next few months, don't forget the big picture.
Edit: Japan is an example where a nation has chosen to subsidize US overconsumption in return for military protection against Russia and China. But Japan is now losing more from its economic protectorate role than it saved by not having to build up a military of its own nor forge alliances with one or more of its large immediate neighbors.
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